In Shakespeare´s The Merchant of Venice, he shows the situation of Jewish people and how they were treated, proving that Shakespeare himself was not anti-semetic. In the 1500s, which is when Shakespeare lived, most of the Jewish people at that time were treated badly, which in my opinion, indicates that Shakespeare was not anti-Semetic in any of his plays. He was just trying to make them seem more beleivable and modern. For example, if Shakespeare were to make a Jew the main character of a story, and in the end the Jew is rich, famous, and has a beautiful wife, well that wouldn’t seem to realistic for Shakespeares times. Shakespeare makes everyone in his play have a racist attitude toward Shylock. Which for some readers, makes them feel sy
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